ExamClear 000-071 Braindumps

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1. User interaction with IBM Director Server is performed through which IBM Director component? 

A. IBM Director Agent 

B. IBM Director Console 

C. IBM Director Manager 

D. IBM Director Controller 

Answer: B 

2. Use the following configuration to answer the question: 

IBM Enterprise rack 

2 BladeCenter chassis (fully populated with 2000w AC Power Modules) 

1 1U Monitor Console Kit 

1 NetBAY Remote Console Manager (RCM) 

Which of the following will provide power to this configuration? 

A. Two DPI high density PDUs and one DPI Universal Rack PDU 

B. Two DPI high density PDUs 

C. Two DPI Front End PDUs 

D. Two DPI Front End PDUs and one DPI Rack PDU 

Answer: A 

3. A customer wants to implement a SQL solution on Microsoft Windows 2000 for 500 users. Which of the 

following server types meets their requirement? 

A. Web server 

B. File server 

C. Database server 

D. Application server 

Answer: C 

4. What is the maximum number of xSeries servers that can be connected to one Remote Console 

Manager (RCM) 

using the NetBAY Advanced Connectivity Technology? 

A. 48 

B. 64

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C. 256 

D. 674 

Answer: C 

5. A customer is purchasing two new racks of ten xSeries 336 servers and ten xSeries 346 servers in rack 

A and 

eight xSeries x445 servers in rack B, and attaching the servers from both racks to a Local Console 

Manager. 

What is an accurate description of the cabling requirements for the new NetBAY ACT solutions? 

A. 18 KCO dongles, one CCO kit, and 18 CAT5 cables 

B. 28 KCO dongles, one CCO kit, and three console cables 

C. 28 KCO dongles, 28 CAT5 cables 

D. 28 KCO dongles, two CCO kits, and 19 CAT5 cables 

Answer: C 

6. During the power on self test (POST) the x346 provides several options to access utilities. One option 

is to 

press the F1 key to access the setup utilities. How can these utilities be accessed after POST has 

completed? 

A. Use IBM Director 

B. Reboot the server 

C. Use IBM Update Connector 

D. Use the Java(tm) Setup Wizard 

Answer: B 

7. A customer bought an x206 with Serial ATA hard files, and they would like to implement a RAID 

solution 

without buying any additional hardware. Which of the following is an available option? 

A. x206 supports RAID 0 and 1 with the included ServeRAID 7e adapter 

B. x206 supports RAID 0, 1 and 5 with the included ServeRAID 7e adapter 

C. x206 supports RAID 0, 1, 1E and 5 with the included ServeRAID 7e adapter 

D. x206 supports RAID 0, 1, 5 and 5EE with the included ServeRAID 7e adapter

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Answer: A 

8. A customer is using an IBM ServeRAID 6M RAID Controller and would like to save the configuration 

information. Which of the following is available to this customer? 

A. Configuration information can be saved to a diskette. 

B. Configuration information can be saved to a USB memory drive. 

C. Configuration information can be saved using the ServeRAID Mini Configuration utility (CTRL h). 

D. Configuration information can be saved to the local file system. 

E. Configuration information is always saved by default, and there is no option to do it manually. 

Answer: A 

9. An IBM eServer xSeries 255 will not start. When the power on button is pressed, the server emits one 

beep 

followed by two beeps in succession and then another single beep. Which of the following would be the 

best 

source to look up the meaning of all these indicators to resolve the problem? 

A. IBM eServer xSeries 255 Users Manual 

B. IBM eServer xSeries 255 Problem Determination Guide 

C. IBM eServer xSeries 255 Hardware Maintenance Manual 

D. IBM eServer xSeries 255 Installation and Setup Manual 

Answer: C 

10. The Firmware and BIOS Version information is displayed on the server console monitor during POST. 

The 

customer needs to get access to this information but cannot shutdown the server to get to the information. 

Which 

of the following tools is the best option to obtain the required information without shutting the server 

down? 

A. IBM Director 

B. IBM ServerGuide 

C. IBM Access connector 

D. IBM Integrated Management Processor

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Answer: A 

11. The IBM eServer xSeries 346 server has two ASM ports accessible from the rear of the chassis. How 

are 

these ports used? 

A. Reserved for connecting USB Devices to the serial interconnect 

B. To daisy chain the ASMP interconnect kit to the SLR adapter 

C. Reserved for use with the Integrated xSeries Adapter (IXA) which allows interconnectivity with an IBM 

eServer iSeries server 

D. To daisy chain the Ethernet controller interconnect kit to the GB Switch 

Answer: C

000-071

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learn the concepts behind the questions rather than be a strict memorization tool. Repeated readings will increase

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the entire document at least twice so that you make sure that you are not missing anything.

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Question: 1

A manufacturing customer has a small SAN with both LINUX and Windows servers attached to a

DS4300 storage server through redundant fabric. Which of the following is the most important

consideration for proper function?

A. Utilization of the interswitch links between the redundant switches

B. Enablement of multi-OS Storage Partitioning feature on DS4300

C. 50u multi-mode Fibre for 2Gb operation

D. RAID level of the array on the DS4300

Answer: B

Question: 2

A banking customer has a mixed Dell and IBM server environment. They want to implement a

system management solution for all their Windows,Linux, and VMWare ESX Intel based servers.

Which of the following features of IBM Director will be an advantage for this customer?

A. Free Aurema and SteelEye software plug-ins

B. Supports non-IBM industry standard Intel based servers

C. Servers can be managed from within the MS Performance Monitor

D. Requires no agents to be installed and run on the IBM systems

Answer: B

Question: 3

An x3950 can withstand up to two failed memory chips per memory port. In addition, the

customer requires protection for a third memory chip failure on that port. Which XA-64e feature

will provide this extra level of protection?

A. Chipkill

B. Memory Mirroring

C. Hot Spare Memory

D. Memory ProteXion

Answer: B

Question: 4

A customer has a database application that is accessed by a large number of people through a

web interface from multiple remote locations. Which of the following questions will provide the

information necessary to design the best performing storage solution?

A. How many web servers will be connected to the database?

B. Will the database be run on a Windows solution?

C. How many concurrent users will be accessing the database?

D. What are the types of transactions run against the database?

Answer: D

Question: 5

A retail customer has 20 new IBM System x3850s and five blade chassis’s. Each blade chassis

has three blades. Windows 2000 server is installed on all of these servers. The customer also

has an IBM System x3400 and just installed IBM Director server and Director console to monitor

all the IBM servers. Now the customer is calling IBM complaining that the IBM Director server

can discover the 5 blade chassis’s, but cannot discover all of the x3850s.Which of the following is

the FIRST item to check when determining the root cause?

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A. The IBM Director console has not been installed in the managed IBM servers.

B. The IBM Director agents have not been installed in the IBM servers.

C. Then necessary IBM Director patches have not been installed in the IBM servers.

D. The IBM Director server has not been installed in the IBM servers.

Answer: B

Question: 6

How many memory expansion cards should be installed to maximize the memory performance of

the x3800 x3850 or x3950?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer: D

Question: 7

A publisher is considering x3950 servers. Which of the following are the memory characteristics

of the x3950?

A. Hot-Add Memory

B. DDR SDRAM

C. Hyper-Threading Memory

D. 2nd-generation Chipkill memory

Answer: A

Question: 8

A retail customer needs the ability to recover their data if a total system failure occurs. Which is

the most important consideration in determining the solution?

A. Network utilization

B. Total amount of storage installed

C. Amount of open files in the backup

D. Amount of critical data in the backup or restore

Answer: D

Question: 9

A company wants to consolidate 20 existing dual processor Pentium III servers, all running a web

server application on Windows Server 2003. They are considering consolidating to a single x3950

running VMWare ESX. Which of the following questions will help determine the correct processor

configuration?

A. Do the web servers require SMP capability?

B. Is the web content static or dynamic information?

C. What is the average CPU utilization of the existing web servers?

D. Will the servers need a SCSI or Fibre Channel storage solution?

Answer: C

Question: 10

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An application vendor wants to choose a fault tolerant platform for their new application. The

application benefits from multiple processors and has been tested on Red Hat Advanced Server

3.Which of the following is the best procedure to determine the memory requirements for the

application?

A. The application should be tested and baselines should be measured with simulated user loads.

B. The application should be tested with the minimum amount of memory then increase the

memory in increments until an acceptable response is achieved.

C. The application should be tested with differing amounts of memory and the fastest response

time is reached it should be used as the acceptable configuration.

D. The application should be tested with the maximum amount of memory then decrease the

memory in increments until an acceptable price/performance ratio is reached.

Answer: A

000-084

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Important Note

Please Read Carefully

For demonstration purpose only, this free version ExamClear study guide contains 10 full length questions selected

from our full version products which have more than 200 questions each.

This Study guide has been carefully written and compiled by ExamClear certification experts. It is designed to help you

learn the concepts behind the questions rather than be a strict memorization tool. Repeated readings will increase

your comprehension.

For promotion purposes, all PDF files are not encrypted. Feel free to distribute copies among your friends and let

them know ExamClear website.

Study Tips

This product will provide you questions and answers along with detailed explanations carefully compiled and written

by our experts. Try to understand the concepts behind the questions instead of cramming the questions. Go through

the entire document at least twice so that you make sure that you are not missing anything.

Latest Version

We are constantly reviewing our products. New material is added and old material is revised. Free updates are

available for 90 days after the purchase. You should check the products page on the http://www.ExamClear.com

website for an update 3-4 days before the scheduled exam date.

Please tell us what you think of our products. We appreciate both positive and critical comments as your feedback

helps us improve future versions. Feedback on specific questions should be send to feedback@ExamClear.com.

Thanks for purchasing our products and look forward to supplying you with all your Certification training needs.

Good studying!

Technical and Support Team

ExamClear LLC.

________________________________________

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Question: 1

Which statement is true about IBM Tivoli Netcool Impact?

A. A data source needs to be defined for any policy to run.

B. A Jabber server should be set up in order to run IBM Tivoli Netcool Impact policies.

C. An e-mail server should be set up in order to run IBM Tivoli Netcool Impact policies.

D. An ObjectServer data source needs to be defined for policies to update ObjectServer events

directly.

Answer: D

Question: 2

For what is the ncLshutdown script used?

A. To shut down the GUI server, impact, and JRExec server processes

B. To stop event processing and policy execution in the IBM Tivoli Netcool Impact server

C. To shut down the IBM Tivoli Netcool Impact server independently from the application server

D. To gracefully shut down the PostgresSQL database and the IBM Tivoli Netcool Impact server

Answer: C

Question: 3

Click the Exhibit button.

Which IBM Tivoli Netcool Impact function(s) is used for step 3 in the policy, based on this pseudo-

code?

A. GetByKey

B. GetByRlter

C. GetByFilter with CountOnly = TRUE

D. GetByFilter then the Length function to count the number of items returned in the array

Answer: D

Question: 4

A customer has a requirement that IBM Tivoli Netcool Impact should only act upon updated

events, and never act upon new events. How would IBM Tivoli Netcool Impact be configured to

meet this requirement?

A. Add a field to the ObjectServer that operators can manually update to trigger policies

B. Include a function in every policy that exits immediately if the IDUC value of the event is U

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C. Add time stamp filtering to the Event Reader, comparing the StateChange value to

FirstOccurrence

D. Select the Get updated events checkbox in the Event Mapping tab of the Event Reader

Configuration window

Answer: C

Question: 5

A customer has a policy that is using the JRExec action to call an external script. The script

requires four parameters to function correctly. What can be done to ensure the policy does not

call the JRExec action if there are fewer than four parameters?

A. Define the number of parameters in the JRExec configuration file

B. Configure the external script to exit if it receives fewer than four parameters

C. Configure the JRExec action to exit if it receives fewer than four parameters

D. Configure the policy with an exception handler to check for the number of parameters

Answer: D

Question: 6

Click the Exhibit button.

Which pseudo-code correctly matches the logic shown in the flowchart?

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A. Read the Customer record from the Oracle database using the Customer column in the event.

If there is no matching record, set the event to Flash, set the Location column to Unknown and

return the event to the ObjectServer. If the Customer record is found, set the Location from the

Customer record, set the Region column based on the Location and return the event to the

ObjectServer.

B. Read the Customer record from the Oracle database using the Customer column in the event.

If there is no matching record, set the event to Flash, set the Location column to Unknown, set

the Region column to Unknown and return the event to the ObjectServer. If the Customer

record is found, set the Location from the Customer record, set the Region column based on

the Location and return the event to the ObjectServer.

C. Read the Customer record from the Oracle database using the Customer column in the event.

If there is no matching record, set the event to Flash, set the Location column to Unknown and

return the event to the ObjectServer. If the Customer record is found, set the Location from the

Customer record and return the event to the ObjectServer.

D. Read the Customer record from the Oracle database using the Customer column in the event.

If there is no matching record, set the Location column to Unknown and return the event to the

ObjectServer. If the Customer record is found, set the Location from the Customer record, set

the Region column based on the Location and return the event to the ObjectServer.

Answer: Pending

Question: 7

A customer has a policy that is performing SNMP gets on device interfaces to enrich events with

the interface name and interface description. When an SNMP query fails, it causes errors. The

customer wants to be notified of SNMP failures. How can the customer’s requirement be met?

A. Configure the policy to monitor the Failed Events data type

B. Do nothing; failures automatically create new events in IBM Tivoli Netcool OMNIbus

C. Configure the policy with an exception handler and create a new event in IBM Tivoli Netcool

OMNIbus

D. Configure the SNMP data source adapter to send events to IBM Tivoli Netcool OMNIbus when

a query fails

Answer: C

Question: 8

An IBM Tivoli Netcool Impact policy is being tested by executing it with the ncijrigger script. What

is the correct syntax for running a policy named Test_Policyl on an IBM Tivoli Netcool Impact

server named NCI, as user admin with a password of netcool, and passing runtime parameters

for Node and AlertKey ObjectServer fields?

A. ncijrigger NCI admin/netcool Test_Policyl @Node “Devicel” @AlertKey “1.3.1″

B. ncijrigger NCI -U admin -P netcool Test_Policyl $Node “Devicel” $AlertKey “1.3.1″

C. ncijrigger NCI -username admin -password netcool -policy Test_Policyl -Node “Devicel” –

AlertKey “1.3.1″

D. ncijrigger NCI -user admin -passwd netcool -policyname Test_Policyl -varl “Node=’Devicell” -

var2 “AlertKey=’1.3.r”

Answer: A

Question: 9

What happens when an event is created in the ObjectServer from IBM Tivoli Netcool Impact

without specifying LastOccurrence?

A. Nothing happens.

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B. The event does not show up.

C. The event shows up with a timestamp.

D. IBM Tivoli Netcool Impact throws an exception.

Answer: C

Question: 10

How is an IBM Tivoli Netcool Impact Operator View created?

A. By creating a map in IBM Tivoli Netcool Webtop

B. By clicking New Operator View in the Operator Views tab

C. By using the Wizards Submenu in the IBM Tivoli Netcool Impact GUI

D. By using the Filter Director in the Event Reader Configuration window

Answer: B

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Exam  :  Oracle 1z0 311 

Title  : 

Update : 

Demo 

oracle application server 

10g:administration 

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1.A  portal  user  named  USER1  registered  a  new  database  provider  with  the  OracleAS  Portal 

instance.  What  are  the  actions  that  are  implicitly  performed  as  a  result  of  the  registration? 

(Choose all that apply.) 

A.A new page is created in the Portlet Repository page group. 

B.The provider registration information is saved in the dads.conf file. 

C.The provider registration information is saved in the portlet repository. 

D.A new database schema is created with the same name as the provider. 

Correct:A C 

2.What  makes  it  possible  to  access  the  portal  from  the  OracleAS  SSO  Administer  Partner 

Applications page? 

A.The administrator registers the portal manually to OracleAS SSO using the ossoreg.jar tool. 

B.The registration of the first external application with OracleAS SSO adds OracleAS Portal as a partner 

application. 

C.The ssocfg.sh script needs to be executed first to access the portal from the OracleAS SSO Administer 

Partner Applications page. 

D.During  OracleAS  middle tier  installation,  the  installer  automatically  adds  the  OracleAS  Portal  as  a 

partner application for OracleAS SSO. 

Correct:D 

3.Today, most Java 2, Enterprise Edition (J2EE) applications use a database to have a persistent 

storage for data. Which two statements regarding the data source are true? (Choose two.) 

A.J2EE applications cannot use more than one data source. 

B.J2EE applications use the data source to ensure portability across application servers. 

C.J2EE applications retrieve connections to the database through DataSource objects. 

D.J2EE applications use the data source to store the Java Naming and Directory Interface (JNDI) tree. 

Correct:B C 

4.Which statements describe the functionality of OracleAS Single Sign On? (Choose all that apply.) 

A.It can be used in either a secure sockets layer (SSL) mode or a non SSL mode. 

B.It uses Single Sign On SDK to enable the single sign on functionality. 

C.It uses Oracle Application Server Containers for J2EE (OC4J) to store user information. 

D.It  uses  the  Single  Sign On  username  and  password  from  the  Oracle  Internet  Directory  (OID)  to 

authenticate users. 

Correct:A D 

5.You  want  to  install  Oracle  Application  Server  10g  middle  tier  that  enables  you  to  generate 

Web based  reports  and  authenticate  users  accessing  the  middle tier  components.  Which 

components must you have installed before you start installing OracleAS Portal and Wireless? 

(Choose all that apply.) 

A.Identity Management 

B.J2EE and Web Cache 

C.OracleAS Developer Kits 

D.OracleAS Metadata Repository 

Correct:A D 

6.In Oracle Internet Directory (OID), which Directory Information Tree (DIT) attribute would you use 

to find out the object classes that are available in Identity Management Realm?

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A.orclUserObjectClass 

B.orclCommonUserSearchBase 

C.orclCommonGroupSearchBase 

D.orclCommonUserNickNameAttribute 

Correct:A 

7.While  setting  up  the  Oracle  HTTP  Server  (OHS)  for  your  Oracle  Application  Server  10g 

installation,  you  want  to  enable  the  server  to  set  a  host  name  that  can  be  used  to  create 

redirection URLs, using the ServerName directive. Within which two scopes can you specify the 

directive in the httpd.conf file? (Choose two.) 

A.in a block container 

B.in a location container 

C.in a directory container 

D.in a virtual host container 

E.in the server level configuration 

Correct:D E 

8.You have not set the Subscriber Search Base node in Directory Information Tree (DIT) in Identity 

Management  Realm  by  using  the  orclSubscriberSearchBase  attribute.  You  use  Discovery 

mechanism to find out user information in the DIT. Which statement is true in this scenario? 

A.This attribute cannot have null values. 

B.This attribute value points to the parent of Default Subscriber. 

C.This attribute would have the same value as User Search Base. 

D.This attribute would have the same value as Default Subscriber. 

E.This attribute would have the same value as Subscriber Nickname. 

Correct:B 

9.You have a text file written in LDAP Data Interchange Format (LDIF) that contains the entries to 

be added to the Oracle Internet Directory (OID). Using this text file as a source file, you want to 

add the entries concurrently using multiple threads. Which OID command line tool would you use? 

A.ldapadd 

B.ldapbind 

C.ldapmoddn 

D.ldapaddmt 

Correct:D 

10.You have Oracle Application Server 10g instance running. For the parent Oracle HTTP Server 

process  you  want  five  child  processes  to  be  always  running.  In  addition to  this,  you  want  to 

restrict the number of requests that are handled simultaneously by the child processes to 20. 

Which options would you use to achieve this objective? (Choose all that apply.) 

A.MaxClients 20 

B.StartServers 5 

C.MaxSpareServers 5 

D.MinSpareServers 10 

E.MaxRequestsPerChild 20 

Correct:A B 

11.You  are  deploying  a  Java  2,  Enterprise  Edition  (J2EE)  application  using  Application  Server

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Control Console. View the Exhibit and examine the fields for which you provide the information. 

What is the significance of selecting a Parent Application? 

A.to share services, such as EJBs among multiple applications 

B.to identify the instance in which the application is to be deployed 

C.to maintain uniformity in the URLs of all the J2EE applications deployed so far 

D.to allow all the users of the parent application to access the application you are deploying 

Correct:A 

12.In your Oracle HTTP Server configuration file, you have configured the following directives as: 

StartServers 10 MaxSpareServers 20 MinSpareServers 15 Which statement is true? 

A.Twenty child processes would be running at any given point in time. 

B.Only 10 child processes would be running at any given point in time. 

C.Initially,  the  parent  process  would  start  10  child  processes,  but  later  it  would  start  additional  child 

processes to maintain the value specified for MinSpareServers. 

D.Initially, the parent process would start 15 child processes, but later it would start more child processes 

automatically to reach the value specified for MaxSpareServers. 

Correct:C 

13.View the Exhibit and examine the contents of the portlist.ini file. You changed the password for 

the portal schema in the infrastructure database by using the ALTER USER SQL command. You 

are able to connect as portal to the infrastructure database. You use the following URL to access

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the  associated  OracleAS  Portal  instance,  but  you  are  not  able  to  log  in  as  user  portal: 

http://host.domain:7778/pls/portal Which two causes could be the reasons for you not being able 

to log in? (Choose two.) 

A.Incorrect port number is specified in the URL. 

B.The password for the PORTAL_PUBLIC schema is not modified. 

C.The Portal User Profile portlet is not used to modify the portal user’s profile. 

D.The portal schema password in Oracle Internet Directory (OID) is not changed. 

E.The connection information in the Database Access Descriptor (DAD) is not updated. 

Correct:D E 

14.You are creating a transport set to export a page group. The FINANCE_APP application is listed 

as  an  external  object  in  the  Transport  Set  Objects  page.  You  require  this  FINANCE_APP 

application to be exported along with rest of the objects in the page group. What would you do? 

A.promote the FINANCE_APP application as an explicitly selected object 

B.specify the automatic_merge parameter explicitly while creating the transport set dump file 

C.use the opeasst.csh script to export the FINANCE_APP application along with the page group 

D.no explicit action required because the external objects are exported along with the page group by 

default 

Correct:A 

15.You want to create a user in Oracle Internet Directory (OID) who should be authenticated using 

Single Sign On and should be able to retrieve user information from the Oracle Directory Server. 

Which two tools can you use to create the user? (Choose two.)

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A.Oracle Wallet Manager 

B.OID Self Service Console 

C.Oracle Directory Manager 

D.OracleAS Single Sign On Server 

E.Oracle Enterprise Manager 10g Application Server Control 

Correct:B C 

16.You are maintaining user information in the Oracle Internet Directory (OID) for authentication. 

You want to find out whether a user, STEVE, has the last name BENNETT. Which OID utility would 

you use? 

A.ldapbind 

B.ldifwrite 

C.ldapmoddn 

D.ldapcompare 

Correct:D 

17.In your Oracle Application Server 10g installation, you observe that the Oracle HTTP Server 

parent  process  is  running  as  the  Oracle  user’s  process  and  currently  using  the  default  port 

number 7778. To comply with the development environment, you have been asked to use port 

number  80  for  the  parent  process.  Which  step  would  you  perform  after  changing  the  Listen 

directive to 80 in the httpd.conf file to ensure that the changed port number is used by the parent 

process? 

A.start the process as the root user 

B.start the process as the Oracle user 

C.start the process as any user other than root and Oracle 

D.change the Group directive in the httpd.conf file to the group of the root user and start the process as 

the Oracle user 

Correct:A 

18.In your existing Oracle Application Server 10g installation, you observe that the Oracle HTTP 

Server (OHS) error log file, error_log, is available in the location set in the ErrorLog directive. 

Because  the  location  set  in  this  directive  is  running  out  of  space  and  there  is  no  free  space 

available  in  other  locations,  you  want  to  suppress  further  logging  of  any  kind  of  messages, 

temporarily, into the error log file. What would you do to achieve this objective? 

A.set ErrorLog to NULL 

B.set ErrorLog to NONE 

C.set ErrorLog to /dev/null 

D.remove the ErrorLog directive from the configuration file 

E.remove the TransferLog directive from the configuration file 

Correct:C 

19.While  setting  up  the  Oracle  HTTP  Server  (OHS)  for  your  Oracle  Application  Server  10g 

installation, you set the container directives in the httpd.conf file as shown in the Exhibit. View the 

Exhibit. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

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A.The Files container is used to match objects at file system level. 

B.The Location container is used to match objects at the block level. 

C.The Directory container is always processed from the shortest directory component to the longest. 

D.The Location container is always processed last of the listed directives in the file irrespective of where it 

appears in the configuration file. 

Correct:A C D 

20.In your Oracle Application Server 10g installation, you want to restrict the number of requests 

allowed  per  connection  to  16.  Which  two  actions  would  you  take  to  achieve  this  objective? 

(Choose two.) 

A.Limit 16 

B.KeepAlive ON 

C.MaxClients 16 

D.KeepAliveTimeout 16 

E.MaxRequestsPerChild 16 

F.MaxKeepAliveRequests 16 

Correct:B F 

21.You are working as an Oracle Application Server administrator for a sales company that has a 

global Web site. You find that the event log size is 1.8 GB and is approaching the maximum limit of 

2 GB. As immediate action is required, you decided to manually initiate the rollover of event logs. 

What would happen during the manual rollover of an event log file? 

A.OracleAS Web Cache deletes the existing event log file and creates a new file. 

B.OracleAS Web Cache stops writing to the event_log file, flushes, and then starts writing again. 

C.OracleAS Web Cache continues writing to the event_log file if there is no operating system restriction 

on the file size. 

D.OracleAS Web Cache saves the current log file to the log_file.yyyymmdd_hhmm file, and then writes 

new log information to the event_log file. 

Correct:D 

22.The options describe the request flow patterns from the client to the server through the Oracle 

Application  Server  components.  A.Browser  >  HTTP  Server  >  Web  Cache  >  OC4J  Engine  > 

database B.Browser > Web Cache > HTTP Server > OC4J Engine > database C.Browser > HTTP 

Server > OC4J Engine > Web Cache > database D.Client > Forms runtime process > Forms listener

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servlet > HTTP Server > database E.Wireless client > OracleAS Portal > OracleAS Wireless > WAP 

gateway Which options show the normal request flow? 

A.A only 

B.B only 

C.C only 

D.D only 

E.E only 

F.both A and D 

G.both D and E 

Correct:B 

23.You  want  authorized  users  to  use  the  single  authentication  feature  to  gain  easy  access  to 

external applications. Which components must be installed before using OracleAS Single Sign On? 

(Choose all that apply.) 

A.OracleAS Wireless 

B.OracleAS Certificate Authority 

C.OracleAS Identity Management 

D.OracleAS Metadata Repository 

Correct:C D 

24.Using  Oracle  Internet  Directory  (OID)  Self  Service  Console  you  have  created  a  new  group, 

PRODGRP1, with no users in this group as members. While assigning privileges to this group, 

you get the error shown in the Exhibit. View the Exhibit. Which task would you accomplish to 

overcome this error message? 

A.add orcladmin user to PRODGRP1 as a member 

B.modify Group Visibility to Private for the group 

C.select “Make this group privileged” option by editing the group 

D.grant full Delegated Administration Services (DAS) privilege to the group by assigning the Privilege 

Group role 

Correct:C 

25.You can export a wallet to a file system only if _____.

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A.it has at least one certificate 

B.it does not contain a certificate request that is pending 

C.it has at least one certificate request with key size 1024 or more 

D.it is already uploaded to a Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) directory 

Correct:A 

26.You are an Oracle Application Server administrator. You want to delegate the administration of 

users in Oracle Internet Directory to Mark. To which three groups should Mark be added? (Choose 

three.) 

A.Edit User 

B.Edit Group 

C.Delete User 

D.Create User 

E.Create Group 

F.Delete Group 

G.UDDI Replicators 

Correct:A C D 

27.You are using Oracle Internet Directory (OID) to store user information that is being used by 

Oracle  Application  Server  components  for  authentication.  You  want  to  search  and  modify  the 

information for a user named STEVE. Which Directory Information Tree (DIT) attribute would you 

use to search for the user in Identity Management Realm? 

A.orclUserObjectClass 

B.orclCommonUserSearchBase 

C.orclCommonGroupSearchBase 

D.orclCommonUserNickNameAttribute 

Correct:B 

28.You  installed  Oracle  Application  Server  10g  middle  tier  with  installation  type  as  Portal  and 

Wireless. Which two options could you use to confirm whether Oracle Internet Directory (OID) is 

installed and functional? (Choose two.) 

A.access the httpd.conf file 

B.use the opmnctl status command 

C.use the dcmctl getstate command 

D.use the Oracle HTTP Server Welcome Page 

E.use Oracle Enterprise Manager 10g Application Server Control 

Correct:B E 

29.You are an Oracle Application Server administrator. You plan to install OracleAS Infrastructure 

but you find that some other Oracle products are already installed on the computer. What would 

you do to avoid any installation problems that might arise due to the products that are already 

installed? 

A.comment the entry in oratab and oraLoc files 

B.remove the settings for TMP and DISPLAY variables 

C.rename the existing components in oraInventory 

D.remove the settings for ORACLE_HOME and ORACLE_SID environment variables 

Correct:D

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30.As  an  Oracle  Application  Server  administrator,  you  plan  to  install  OracleAS  Infrastructure. 

Before starting the installation, you created a staticports.ini file containing component names and 

port numbers. You specified the full path to the staticports.ini file on the runInstaller command line. 

What could be the reason to create the staticports.ini file and use it in the installation? 

A.You want to run the installer remotely. 

B.You want to run the installer in silent mode. 

C.You want to use this file instead of portlist.ini file. 

D.You want to assign nondefault port numbers to the components during the installation. 

E.You want to unassign these port numbers for the components that are currently running on these ports. 

Correct:D

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assistant Directory Numbers (DN) configured?
A.The manager and assistant both share the same directory number (DN).
B.The manager and assistant have separate directory numbers (DN), but share an IPMA directory number.
C.The manager and assistant each have separate directory numbers (DN).
D.The manager and assistant share a directory number (DN) and an IP Manager Assistant (IPMA)
directory number.
Correct:A
15.What occurs if the system clocks are not synchronized between the sender and receiver of an
RTP stream?
A.Packets can be placed in sequence but jitter cannot be compensated for.
B.Packets cannot be reordered for sequence and jitter cannot be compensated for.
C.Jitter can be compensated for, but packets cannot be reordered if they arrive out of sequence.
D.Packets may be reordered and jitter may be compensated for as the timestamp is not related to the
system time.
E.When the RTP stream is opened, the sender and receiver synchronize their clocks before the stream
commences so that packet sequencing and dejitter will function correctly.
Correct:D
16.Which 3 functions are NOT performed by a Route Pattern? (Choose 3)
A.Points to the actual IP phone
B.Matches dialed number for external calls
C.Performs digit manipulation
D.Points to a route list for routing
E.Chooses path for call routing
F.Points to prioritized route groups
Correct:A E F
17.Which one of the following does NOT state Multicast Technologies Advantages?
A.Enhanced Efficiency: controls network traffic and reduces server and CPU loads
B.Optimized Performance: eliminates traffic redundancy
C.Distributed Applications: makes multipoint applications possible
D.Bandwidth conserving technology that reduces traffic by simultaneously delivering a single stream of
information to thousands of corporate recipients and homes
E.Prevent Denial of service (DoS) attacks in the networks
Correct:E
18.Why can’t TCP be used for transferring audio and video over UDP? (Choose 5)
A.TCP does not have a mechanism for sufficiently long buffering and adequate average throughput.
B.Reliable transmission is inappropriate for delay sensitive data such as real time audio and video.
C.TCP cannot support multicast.
D.The TCP congestion control mechanisms decreases the congestion window when packet losses are
detected (”slow start”).
E.TCP headers are larger than a UDP header.
F.TCP does not contain the necessary timestamp and encoding information needed by the receiving
application.
Correct:B C D E F
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19.The IOS command “call rsvp sync resv timer 10″ is used to set the timer on the:
A.Originating VoIP gateway for completing RSVP reservation setups within 10 seconds
B.Originating and terminating VoIP gateway for completing RSVP reservation setups within 10 seconds
C.Terminating VoIP gateway for completing RSVP reservation setups within 10 seconds
D.VoIP gatekeeper for completing RSVP reservation setups within 10 seconds
Correct:C
20.Calculate the percentage of overall bandwidth saved (at Layer 3) by cRTP for a G.729 VoIP call
packetized at 50 pps.
A.Approximately 60%
B.Approximately 50%
C.Approximately 40%
D.Approximately 30%
E.Approximately 20%
Correct:A
21.Refer to the exhibit. While debugging a problem on SIP network, one of the messages
displayed when the debug ccsip messages command is entered is shown in the exhibit. What
information will the server return to the caller?
A.The acceptable media type
B.A list of acceptable media types
C.A list of acceptable formats
D.A correct directory number
E.An acceptable language code
Correct:C
22.Refer to the exhibit. Two ports on a 3600 gateway platform are stuck in the EM_PARK state.
What workaround can be configured on the router to help alleviate this situation?
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A.Fake Answer
B.A GetDigit Timeout value
C.A call park watchdog timer
D.Configure the interface for wink start signaling
Correct:A
23.Based upon your understanding of an SCCP 7960 IP phone bootup sequence, what must be
true for the CallManager to send the IP phone an SEPDefault.cnf file instead of an SEP (mac
address) file? (Choose 3)
A.The IP phone must request SEPDefault.cnf file explictly.
B.Auto Registration must be enabled.
C.The IP phone must be configured in the “default” partition.
D.The IP phone should not have previously registered with this CallManager cluster.
E.The IP phone must have previously registered, but the IP Phone was power cycled.
Correct:A B D
24.Two type of RSVP reservation types are:
A.Distinct and Shared
B.Same and Distinct
C.Shared and non shared
D.Reservation and Path
Correct:A
25.A CME site has a group of attendants that answer calls for 3 different companies. The dial plan
for the CME site is listed below. CompanyA: 4085551111 CompanyB: 4085552222 CompanyC:
4085553333 AttendantA: 100 AttendantB: 101 AttendantC: 102 Identify the configuration that will
meet the following criteria: 1. Incoming DNIS call to company A, B or C’s dial in number will hunt
to the attendant that has been idle the longest. 2. The name of the company that was called should
appear on the phone display. 3. Attendants can logout so that calls to Company A, B or C will
bypass their phone.
A.telephony service directory entry 1 4085551111 name CompanyA directory entry 2 4085552222 name
CompanyB directory entry 3 4085553333 name CompanyC service dnis dir lookup ephone hunt 1
longest idle pilot 105 secondary 408555…. list 100,101,102 preference 1 timeout 5
B.telephony service directory entry 1 4085551111 name CompanyA directory entry 2 4085552222 name
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CompanyB directory entry 3 4085553333 name CompanyC service dnis dir lookup ephone hunt 1
longest idle pilot 408555…. list 100,101,102 preference 1 timeout 5
C.ephone dn 1 number 100 secondary 408555…. name CompanyA preference 1 no huntstop ! ephone dn
2 number 101 secondary 408555…. name CompanyB preference 2 no huntstop ! ephone dn 3 name
CompanyA number 102 secondary 408555…. preference 2 no huntstop
D.ephone dn 1 number 408555…. name CompanyA preference 1 no huntstop ! ephone dn 2 number
408555…. name CompanyB preference 2 no huntstop ! ephone dn 3 name CompanyC number 408555….
preference 3 no huntstop
E.telephony service directory entry 1 4085551111 name CompanyA directory entry 2 4085552222 name
CompanyB directory entry 3 4085553333 name CompanyC service dnis dir lookup ephone dn 1 number
100 secondary 4085551111 preference 1 no huntstop ! ephone dn 2 number 101 secondary 4085552222
preference 2 no huntstop ! ephone dn 3 number 102 secondary 4085553333 preference 2 no huntstop
Correct:A
26.A software media termination point should be deployed to support which call processing
models and services?
A.To support remote sites for multi site distributed call processing models and H.323v1.
B.To support remote sites in a centralized call processing model and H.323v1.
C.To support single site call processing models and H.323v1.
D.To support IP Telephony Service Providers and H.323v1.
Correct:C
27.Which of the following are mandatory sub commands under call manager fallback and will help
an IP Phone register to an IOS router in SRST mode? (Choose 3)
A.access code
B.dialplan pattern
C.ip source address
D.keepalive
E.max dn
F.max ephones
Correct:C E F
28.Consider the exhibit. A call placed from extension 2000 to extension 2001 is forwarded to
voicemail. Instead of the greeting for 2001, the default greeting is heard. The caller is able to select
extension 2001 from the voicemail AA and leave a message. From the SMDI trace, what is the most
likely cause of this problem?
A.The ‘External Phone Number Mask’ for extension 2001 is not set correctly.
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B.The ‘OutputExternalFormat’ parameter is not set correctly.
C.The ‘OutputDnFormat’ parameter is not set correctly.
D.The ‘InputDnSignificantDigits’ parameter is not set correctly.
E.The LTN does not match the port the call is forwarded on.
Correct:E
29.Which would be situations where configuring and using a DNS server would be advisable in an
IP telephony network. (Choose 2)
A.If Network Address Translation (NAT) is required for communication between the IP phones and Cisco
CallManager.
B.DNS names resolution is required within the cluster deployed in a single site.
C.DNS names resolution is required for Multi Site WAN Deployments with Centralized Call Processing.
D.DNS names resolution is required for Multi Site WAN Deployments with Distributed Call Processing.
E.IP telephony disaster recovery network configurations.
F.The size of the DNS response exceeds 1500 bytes, so only the first 1500 bytes are returned by the DNS
server.
G.The MTU size in the network is longer than the bandwidth will allow.
Correct:A E
30.Consider the exhibit. On which two of the links (labeled A through F) would SCCP be used as
the protocol? (Choose 2)
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
E.E
F.F
Correct:B F

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1.Which of the following statements outline the correct way to implement a non standard softkey
template?
A.Select a softkey template? copy the template and rename it? insert it? modify the template and update
the changes.
B.Select a softkey template? rename it? modify it and update the changes.
C.Select the default softkey template, rename it? insert it? modify it and update the changes.
D.Select add softkey template, name it? update it? modify the template and update the changes.
Correct:A
2.Which port(s) must be opened on an IOS firewall to allow successful MGCP (Media Gateway
Control Protocol) message exchanges between a CallManager and an IOS MGCP PRI gateway?
A.TCP 2000 and TCP 2002
B.TCP 2427 and UDP 2428
C.UDP 2427
D.UDP 2427 and UDP 2428
E.UDP 2427 and TCP 2428
Correct:E
3.There are 2 remote sites and one main site. Each site has a CME router with many IP phones in
an IPT deployment. The Network Administrator wants to provide all of the phones voicemail
access using CUE. Which way can CUE be deployed?
A.Cisco Unity Express and the CME gateway at each site must be collocated in the same router chassis
providing voicemail access to local IP phones registered to local CME.
B.One Cisco Unity Express can be used at the main site with CME router providing voicemail access to all
the 3 sites.
C.One Cisco Unity Express with CME can be used at the main site to provide voicemail access to the IP
phones at the main site. Another Cisco Unity Express with CME can be used at one of the remote sites to
provide voicemail access for all of the IP phones at the two remote sites.
D.Cisco Unity Express and the CME gateway at each site may NOT be collocated in the same router
chassis providing a voicemail access to local IP phones registered to local CME.
Correct:A
4.Which of the following are NOT true statements about Certificate Trust List (CTL) File? (Choose
2)
A.It is a list of devices and credentials that a phone should trust on the network.
B.The CTL file is signed by administrator workstation password.
C.It contains identity, public key and role information.
D.Phones need to trust all entries in the CTL file which could be CCM, TFTP, CAPF, etc.
E.The CTL file is loaded to the phone each time when authentication is required.
F.The CTL is created by CTL Client on administrator workstation.
Correct:B E
5.A CallManager Group can provide which two features to your call processing system? (Choose
2)
A.Support for SRST in remote offices
B.Enables you to distribute the control of devices across multiple Cisco CallManagers
C.Enables you to distribute voice mail support across multiple Unity servers
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D.Support for redundancy by enabling you to designate a primary and backup Cisco CallManagers for
each group
E.Support for control of IPMA across primary and backup Cisco CallManagers for each group
Correct:B D
6.When comparing SIP, H.323, and MGCP, and SCCP in a VoIP deployment, which Protocol will
satisfy the following requirements: Requirement 1: It has a mechanism for a centralized dial plan
Requirement 2: The endpoints are considered to be unintelligent Requirement 3: The protocol
must be text based
A.SIP
B.H.323
C.MGCP
D.SCCP
Correct:C
7.Which 2 are NOT functions performed by Cisco Media Streaming App Service?
A.Provides SCCP stack for 4 software devices: ANN, CFB, MOH, and MTP
B.Supports DB change notification processing
C.Converts new MOH source files to separate WAV files for MOH codecs
D.Provides SDI trace, event logs, and Perfmon counters
E.Adjusts volume levels of MOH source files
F.Provides audio data from WAV files: ANN, MOH
Correct:C E
8.An IP phone is connected to a Cisco inline power switch Port. Switch is running IOS image on it.
The switch port is acting as a trunk and is running both Voice and Data VLAN configuration on it.
We would like the IP Phone connected to switch port in voice VLAN to set layer 2 priority of all the
packets coming from PC to default 0. Which IOS CLI in Interface Port configuration on Inline
power switch can help us achieve our objective?
A.switchport access priority extend cos 0
B.switchport priority extend cos 0
C.switchport trunk priority cos 0
D.switchport mode access priority extend cos 0
E.mls qos priority extend cos 0
F.switchport access extend cos 0
Correct:B
9.A company has a headquarters with a centralized CallManager and 5 remote offices. All the
remote offices have extensions in the range of 1000 1150. To allow inter office calls each office
has been assigned a 3 digit site code. To call between sites, users will dial an access code
followed by the 3 digit site code and the extension. Which of the following describes how these
inter office access codes should be configured?
A.A translation pattern is created for each office and placed in a partition available to all phones. The
translation pattern strips the access code and site code and is assigned a Calling Search Space that
includes only the phones located in the office.
B.A translation pattern is created for each office and is placed in a partition available to the phones at that
office. The translation pattern strips the access code and site code and is assigned to Calling Search
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Space that includes all local phones.
C.A route pattern is created for each office and placed in a partition available to all phones. The route
pattern strips the access code and the site code and routes the call to the remote office’s gateway.
D.A route pattern is created for each office and placed in a partition available to phones at that office. The
route pattern strips the access code and site code and routes the call to the remote office’s gateway.
Correct:B
10.Which type of media resources would be required for a single site call processing model?
A.MTP
B.Locations
C.Regions
D.Transcoders
Correct:A
11.Which method could be used to determine if there is a JTAPI memory leak in a CallManager
server?
A.Look at the physical memory available of the server.
B.Review all CCM User logs
C.Check for changes to IP phone settings, like ring settings reverting to default values
D.Determine if dialing the voice mail pilot number fails to connect to voice mail
E.Check for an increasing number of fast busys when dialing to the PSTN
Correct:A
12.Which statement does NOT describe dialing domain functionality in Cisco Unity?
A.Dialing domains are multiple Unity servers that are handling subscribers that are on a single switch or
networked switch
B.All users in the dialing domain should be able to pick up their phones and dial each other directly
without having to dial trunk access codes or use outside lines.
C.Dialing domains are also necessary if the Unity servers involved don’t have overlapping dial plans.
D.Dialing domain IDs are stored on the primary location object. Multiple primary location objects with the
same value for this ID make up a dialing domain.
E.All delivery locations get the same dialing domain ID as the primary location of the box they are created
on.
Correct:C